Did Aristotle really convert to Judaism in his later years?

No - Aristotle was not a Jew…it is a fabrication of fools. There was no “conversion” because there was no concept of “conversion to Judaism” in 322 BCE when he died. Moreover, Maimonides in 1180 CE made no dclarations about Aristotle other than me... read more

There was no “conversion” because there was no concept of “conversion to Judaism” in 322 BCE when he died. Moreover, Maimonides in 1180 CE made no dclarations about Aristotle other than mentioning Aristotle in the context of (and I paraphrase) “accept knowledge and learning from masters regardless of their creed”. read more

Aristotle ultimately became a righteous convert [to Judaism] at the end of his life. He was appointed over King Solomon’s works when Alexander the Great conquered Israel. Some of the wisdom he learned from Solomon’s works is from where he fashioned some of his philosophies. read more

A convert to Judaism has chosen to become part of the Jewish people. Therefore,"her people" are the Jewish people. As for what I would"say or do" if any Jew talked about our people having long been victims of oppression, it would depend on context. read more